The Treasury and IRS have issued guidance on the recent order by President Trump to defer certain employee payroll tax obligations on wages paid from September 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. Under the guidance:

The Treasury and IRS have issued guidance on the recent order by President Trump to defer certain employee payroll tax obligations on wages paid from September 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. Under the guidance:

• the due date for the withholding and payment of the employee’s portion of the 6.2-percent old-age, survivors and disability insurance (OASDI) tax (Social Security tax) under Code Sec. 3101(a), and the employee’s portion of the Railroad Retirement Tax Act (RRTA) Tier 1 tax that is attributable to the 6.2-percent Social Security tax under Code Sec. 3201, on applicable wages is postponed until the period beginning on January 1, 2021, and ending on April 30, 2021; and
• the deferred taxes must be withheld and paid from wages and compensation paid between January 1, 2021, and April 30, 2021.

The guidance states that it does not separately postpone the deposit obligation for employee Social Security tax. This is because the deposit obligation does not arise until the tax is withheld, so by postponing the time for withholding the employee Social Security tax, the deposit obligation is delayed by operation of the tax regulations.

7508A Relief
In light of the coronavirus (COVID-19) disaster, President Trump issued a memorandum on August 8, 2020, directing the Treasury Secretary to use his Code Sec. 7508A authority to defer the withholding, deposit, and payment of the employee’s portion of Social Security tax, and the employee’s portion of the RRTA equivalent tax, on wages and compensation paid from September 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. The deferral is available only for employees whose biweekly, pre-tax pay is less than $4,000, or a similar amount where a different pay period applies.

The Treasury Secretary has determined that employers required to withhold and pay the employee share of the Social Security tax under Code Sec. 3102(a) or the RRTA tax equivalent under Code Sec. 3202(a) are affected by the COVID-19 emergency for purposes of the relief described in the presidential memorandum.

Applicable Wages
The deferral applies to wages under Code Sec. 3121(a) or compensation under Code Sec. 3231(e) paid to an employee on a pay date during the period beginning on September 1, 2020, and ending on December 31, 2020 (collectively "applicable wages"), but only if the amount of wages or compensation paid for a biweekly pay period is less than $4,000, or the equivalent threshold amount with respect to other pay periods.

Applicable wages are determined on a pay period-by-pay period basis. If the amount of wages or compensation payable to an employee for a pay period is less than the corresponding pay period threshold amount, then that amount is considered applicable wages for the pay period. In that case, the relief provided in the guidance applies to the wages or compensation paid to that employee for that pay period, irrespective of the amount of wages or compensation paid to the employee for other pay periods.

Paying Deferred Taxes
An affected employer must withhold and pay the total applicable taxes that it has deferred ratably from wages and compensation paid between January 1, 2021, and April 30, 2021. Interest, penalties, and additions to tax will begin to accrue on May 1, 2021, on any unpaid deferred taxes.

If necessary, the employer can make arrangements to otherwise collect the total deferred taxes from the employee.

The IRS has released the 2020-2021 special per diem rates. Taxpayers use the per diem rates to substantiate the amount of ordinary and necessary business expenses incurred while traveling away from home. These special per diem rates include the special transportation industry meal and incidental expenses (M&IEs) rates, the rate for the incidental expenses only deduction, and the rates and list of high-cost localities for purposes of the high-low substantiation method. Taxpayers using the rates and list of high-cost localities provided in the guidance must comply with Rev. Proc. 2019-48, I.R.B. 2019-51, 1390.

The IRS has released the 2020-2021 special per diem rates. Taxpayers use the per diem rates to substantiate the amount of ordinary and necessary business expenses incurred while traveling away from home. These special per diem rates include the special transportation industry meal and incidental expenses (M&IEs) rates, the rate for the incidental expenses only deduction, and the rates and list of high-cost localities for purposes of the high-low substantiation method. Taxpayers using the rates and list of high-cost localities provided in the guidance must comply with Rev. Proc. 2019-48, I.R.B. 2019-51, 1390.

The guidance is effective for per diem allowances for lodging, meal and incidental expenses, or for meal and incidental expenses only, that are paid to any employee on or after October 1, 2020, for travel away from home on or after October 1, 2020. For computing the amount allowable as a deduction for travel away from home, the guidance is effective for M&IEs or for incidental expenses only paid or incurred on or after October 1, 2020.

Transportation Industry Rates
The special M&IE rates for taxpayers in the transportation industry are:

• $66 for any locality of travel in the continental United States (CONUS), and
• $71 for any locality of travel outside the continental United States (OCONUS).

Incidental Expenses Only Rate
The rate is $5 per day for any CONUS or OCONUS travel for the incidental expenses only deduction.

High-Low Substantiation Method
For purposes of the high-low substantiation method, the per diem rates in lieu of the rates described in Notice 2019-55 (the per diem substantiation method) are:

• $292 for travel to any high-cost locality, and
• $198 for travel to any other locality within CONUS.

The amount of these rates that is treated as paid for meals, and the per diem rates in lieu of the rates described in Notice 2019-55 (the M&IE only substantiation method), are:

• $71 for travel to any high-cost locality, and
• $60 for travel to any other locality within CONUS

The guidance provides a list of localities that have a federal per diem rate of $245 or more, and are high-cost localities for a specified portion of the calendar year. The list differs from the high-cost locality list in Notice 2019-55:

• Added to the list: Los Angeles, California; San Diego, California; Gulf Breeze, Florida; Kennebunk/Kittery/Sanford, Maine; Virginia Beach, Virginia.
• Localities that have changed the portion of the year in which they are high-cost localities: Sedona, Arizona; Monterey, California; Santa Barbara, California; District of Columbia; Naples, Florida; Jekyll Island/Brunswick, Georgia; Boston/Cambridge, Massachusetts; Philadelphia, Pennsylvania; Jamestown/Middletown/Newport, Rhode Island; Charleston, South Carolina.
• Removed from the list: Midland/Odessa, Texas; Pecos, Texas.

The Treasury and IRS have issued final regulations that limit the Code Sec. 245A dividends received deduction and the Code Sec. 954(c) exception on distributions supported by certain earnings and profits not subject to the integrated international tax regime created by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA) ( P.L. 115-97). Proposed regulations and temporary regulations, issued on June 18, 2019, are adopted and removed, respectively.

The Treasury and IRS have issued final regulations that limit the Code Sec. 245A dividends received deduction and the Code Sec. 954(c) exception on distributions supported by certain earnings and profits not subject to the integrated international tax regime created by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA) ( P.L. 115-97). Proposed regulations and temporary regulations, issued on June 18, 2019, are adopted and removed, respectively.

TCJA Provisions
The TCJA transitioned the United States from a primarily deferral-based international system of taxation (i.e., current taxation of subpart F income) to a participation exemption system with immediate taxation of certain offshore earnings. The TCJA introduced:

• the Code Sec. 245A dividends received deduction;
• the Code Sec. 965 transition tax; and
• the global intangible low-taxed income (GILTI) regime under Code Sec. 951A.

The Code Sec. 245A deduction provides a 100-percent deduction to domestic corporations for certain dividends received from a specified foreign corporations (SFC) after December 31, 2017. Earnings and profits generated before the deduction became available are subject to the Code Sec. 965 transition tax on post-1986 earnings and profits.

The GILTI regime subjects certain intangible income of a controlled foreign corporation (CFC) to current taxation, for tax years starting in 2018.

The subpart F regime was retained for tax years starting in 2018. The regime subjects certain earnings of a CFC to current taxation. The regime also provides that dividends received by a CFC, from a related CFC, are not included in the recipient CFC’s income and subject to current tax under subpart F, if certain requirements are met under the Code Sec. 954(c) exception.

Earnings and profits that are previously taxed under the transition tax, or subpart F or GILTI regimes, are treated as being distributed before non-previously taxed earnings and profits, and a distribution of previously taxed earnings and profits (PTEP) is not treated as a distribution of a dividend eligible for the Code Sec. 245A deduction.

Limits on Deduction
The final regulation limit the Code Sec. 245A deduction with respect to a dividend received by a U.S. corporation from certain SFCs so that the deduction is not available for the earnings and profits attributable to base erosion-type income. The final regulations limit the deduction to the portion of the dividend that exceeds the ineligible amount of the dividend. The ineligible amount is the sum of (1) 50 percent of the extraordinary disposition amount, and (2) the extraordinary reduction amount.

An extraordinary disposition is a disposition of an asset by a SFC that:

is outside of the ordinary course of activities to a related party during the disqualified period (between January 1, 2018, and the end of the foreign corporation's last taxable year beginning before January 1, 2018), and
exceeds the lesser of $50 million or 5 percent of the gross value of the SFC’s assets.
The Code Sec. 245A deduction is limited with respect to extraordinary dispositions, because earnings and profits generated in those transactions are not subject to tax under the transition tax, or the GILTI and subpart F regimes and, as a result, are not of the residual type for which the Code Sec. 245A deduction is intended to potentially be available.

Extraordinary reductions result from transfers of CFC stock where:

a controlling Code Sec. 245A shareholder transfers more than 10 percent of its stock of the CFC, or
there is a greater than 10 percent change in the controlling Code Sec. 245A shareholder’s overall ownership of the CFC.
The Code Sec. 245A deduction is limited in connection with extraordinary reductions because the deduction can result in complete avoidance of U.S. tax with respect to subpart F income or tested income that, absent the extraordinary reduction, would have been included in income by the selling U.S. shareholder under the subpart F or GILTI regimes, respectively

The final regulations require taxpayers to compute, track, and report information relevant for determination of extraordinary dispositions and extraordinary reductions. If an SFC is sold and there is no Code Sec. 245A shareholder of the target SFC after the transaction, the extraordinary disposition account of the target SFC is generally eliminated.

A taxpayer may elect to close the tax year of the CFC for all purposes of the Code on the date of an extraordinary reduction. This prevents disallowance of the Code Sec. 245A deduction. Under the election, the CFC’s earnings and profits for the tax year up to the date of the extraordinary reduction are subject to taxation under the subpart F or GILTI regimes in the seller’s hands, while the remaining earnings and profits of the CFC for the year would be subject to taxation under the subpart F or GILTI regimes in the buyer’s hands. The final regulations clarify that there must be agreement between the buyer and seller of the CFC that was subject to the extraordinary reduction for the election to be made.

Limits on Exception
Application of the Code Sec. 954(c)(6) is also limited when portion of a dividend is paid out of an extraordinary disposition account, or when an extraordinary reduction occurs.

The Code Sec. 954(c)(6) exception is limited where its application would otherwise allow earnings and profits that had accrued after December 31, 2017 (the last measurement date for determining the amount of earnings and profits subject to the transition tax), and that was generated by income that had never been tested under the subpart F and GILTI regimes, to inappropriately qualify for an exception to the subpart F regime.

Treasury has issued final and amended regulations on the rules for distributions made by terminated S corporations during the post-termination transition period (PTTP). These regulations apply after an S corporation has become a C corporation.

Treasury has issued final and amended regulations on the rules for distributions made by terminated S corporations during the post-termination transition period (PTTP). These regulations apply after an S corporation has become a C corporation.

Generally, the regulations are applicable as of the date they are published in the Federal Register.

Eligible Terminated S Corporation (ETSC) Under Section 481
In the case of an S election revocation with a retroactive effective date, the revocation may be treated as occurring on the retroactive effective date for ETSC qualification as well.

The treasury department amended Reg. §§1.481-5(b)(2) and (3) so that a corporation may test compliance with the revocation requirement and the shareholder identity requirement on either:

• the date the revocation was made; or
• in the case of a revocation with a retroactive effective date, the date the revocation was effective.

To qualify as an ETSC under Code Sec. 481, a corporation must satisfy the revocation requirement by making a revocation of its S election during the two-year period beginning on December 22. It also must satisfy the shareholder identify requirement that the owners of the stock of the corporation on the date the S election was revoked are the same owners as on December 22, 2017.

The two year period during which an S corporation can revoke its S election ends on December 23. Reg. §1.1362-2(a)(2) provides that Code Sec. 7503 applies where the last day for making a revocation occurs on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.

No Newcomer Rule
Reg. §1.1377-2(b) applies to a corporation’s taxable years beginning after the date of the publication of final regulations. It eliminates the no-newcomer rule for special treatment under Code Sec. 1371(e)(1) of distributions of money by a corporation with respect to its stock during the PTTP.

In the case of a corporation using the calendar year as its annual accounting period, newcomers are not entitled to receive distributions of the accumulated adjustments account (AAA) before January 1, 2021, unless the corporation chooses to apply Reg. §1.1377-2(b) before January 1, 2021.

The final regulations allow but do not require corporations to apply the final regulations addressing distributions made during the ETSC period to tax years beginning on or before the date that the final regulations are published.

Distributions of Money by ETSC
Reg. §1.1371-1 addresses distributions of money by an ETSC. It provides rules for qualified distributions and distributions where Code Sec. 301 applies during the tax years of the ETSC period, including the tax year in which the ETSC period ends.

Under Reg. §1.1371-2, if an intervening audit PTTP arises, the ETSC period immediately stops. Then, the ETSC period resumes provided that the ETSC’s AAA balance is greater than zero. Otherwise, later distributions by the ETSC are treated in the manner provided in Code Sec. 301(c).

Applicability Dates of the Regulations
A corporation may choose to apply the rules set forth in Reg. §§1.481-5, 1.1371-1, and 1.1371-2 to tax years beginning on or before the date the regulations are published in the Federal Register. In addition, a corporation generally may choose to not apply the no-newcomer rule in Reg. §1.1377-2(b) to tax years beginning on or before publication as long as the three year period described in Code Sec. 6501(a) has not expired.

Final regulations clarify that the amount of the rehabilitation credit for a qualified rehabilitated building (QRB) is determined as a single credit in the year the QRB is placed in service. This is the case even though the credit is allocated ratably over a five-year period. The final regulations adopt without modification proposed regulations released earlier this year ( NPRM REG-124327-19).

Final regulations clarify that the amount of the rehabilitation credit for a qualified rehabilitated building (QRB) is determined as a single credit in the year the QRB is placed in service. This is the case even though the credit is allocated ratably over a five-year period. The final regulations adopt without modification proposed regulations released earlier this year ( NPRM REG-124327-19).

TCJA Changes to Rehabilitation Credit
The Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA) ( P.L. 115-97) amended the rehabilitation credit for amounts paid or incurred after 2017. The credit is now claimed ratably over a five-year period that begins in the year the QRB is placed in service. The ratable share for each year is 20 percent of the qualified rehabilitation expenditures (QREs) for the building. However, a transition rule allows certain taxpayers to claim the credit all in one year under pre-TCJA rules if the 24- or 60-month period selected for the substantial rehabilitation test began by June 20, 2018.

Final Rehabilitation Credit Regs Include Coordination Rules and Examples
The amended version of the rehabilitation credit is still determined in the year the QRB is placed in service. This single credit is then claimed ratably over five years. This single-credit approach also applies to the recapture, basis adjustment, and leased property rules. These results are consistent with pre-TCJA law.

To reflect these changes, the final regs provide:

• a general rule for calculating the rehabilitation credit;
• definitions of "ratable share" and "rehabilitation credit determined;"
• a rule coordinating the amended credit with the Code Sec. 50 rules for the investment credit; and
• examples illustrating the interaction of the credit with Code Sec. 50(a) (recapture in case of dispositions, etc.), Code Sec. 50(c) (basis adjustment to investment credit property); and Code Sec. 50(d)(5) (relating to certain leased property when the lessee is treated as owner and subject to an income inclusion requirement).

Effective Date for Rehab Credit Regs
The final regulations apply to tax years beginning on or after the date they are published in the Federal Register. However, taxpayers may apply them to QREs paid or incurred after December 31, 2017, as long as they apply them in their entirety and in a consistent manner.

The IRS has released final regulations that clarify the definition of a "qualifying relative" for purposes of various provisions for tax years 2018 through 2025. These regulations generally affect taxpayers who claim federal income tax benefits that require a taxpayer to have a qualifying relative.

The IRS has released final regulations that clarify the definition of a "qualifying relative" for purposes of various provisions for tax years 2018 through 2025. These regulations generally affect taxpayers who claim federal income tax benefits that require a taxpayer to have a qualifying relative.

Effective Date
These regulations are effective on the date of publication in the Federal Register.

Exemption Amount
On June 9, 2020, the Treasury and the IRS published a notice of proposed rulemaking REG-118997-19. Consistent with Notice 2018-70, the proposed regulations provide that, in determining whether an individual is a qualifying relative for purposes of various provisions that refer to Code Sec. 152 in tax years in which the exemption amount is zero, the Code Sec. 151(d) exemption amount will be the inflation-adjusted Code Sec. 152(d)(1)(B) exemption amount in the annual revenue procedure setting forth inflation-adjusted items that is published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. Thus, the exemption amount to be used for this purpose is $4,150 for tax year 2018 (section 3.24 of Rev. Proc. 2017-58, 2017- 45 I.R.B. 489, modified and superseded by Rev. Proc. 2018-18, 2018-10 I.R.B. 392); $4,200 for tax year 2019 (section 3.25 of Rev. Proc. 2018-57, 2018-49 I.R.B. 827); and $4,300 for tax year 2020 (section 3.25 of Rev. Proc. 2019-44, 2019-47 I.R.B. 1093).

The IRS has announced that Medicaid coverage of Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) testing and diagnostic services is not minimum essential coverage for purposes of the premium tax credit under Code Sec. 36B.

The IRS has announced that Medicaid coverage of Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) testing and diagnostic services is not minimum essential coverage for purposes of the premium tax credit under Code Sec. 36B.

Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), certain taxpayers who obtain their coverage through an Exchange may claim a premium tax credit under Code Sec. 36B. However, taxpayers are only allowed the credit for months they are not otherwise eligible for minimum essential coverage.

Minimum essential coverage includes coverage under government-sponsored programs, including Medicaid, but certain health care coverage providing limited benefits is exempted.

The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that Medicaid coverage limited to COVID-19 testing and diagnostic services is not minimum essential coverage under a government-sponsored program. Thus, an individual’s eligibility for this coverage for one or more months does not prevent the individual from claiming the premium tax credit under Code Sec. 36B.

The IRS has released guidance in the form of questions and answers with respect to certain provisions of the Setting Every Community Up for Retirement Enhancement Act of 2019 (SECURE Act), and the Bipartisan American Miners Act of 2019 (Miners Act).

The IRS has released guidance in the form of questions and answers with respect to certain provisions of the Setting Every Community Up for Retirement Enhancement Act of 2019 (SECURE Act), and the Bipartisan American Miners Act of 2019 (Miners Act).

Business Credit
The SECURE ACT added a new Code Sec 45T, which provides a business credit to an eligible employer that establishes an eligible automatic contribution arrangement under a qualified employer plan. The credit is equal to $500 per year and applies to tax years beginning after December 31, 2019.

The notice clarifies than an eligible employer can only receive a credit during a single three year credit period. For example, if Employer X includes an automatic contribution arrangement for Plan A during 2021, 2022, and 2023 and then includes an automatic contribution arrangement for Plan B during 2022, 2023, and 2024, they can receive no more than $500 as a credit for 2021, 2022, and 2023, and are not permitted to receive a credit for 2024. The employer must include the same arrangement in the same plan for years two and three.

The credit applies separately to each eligible employer that participates in a multiple employer plan.

IRA Contribution Age Limit
Prior to the SECURE Act, an individual was not permitted to make contributions to their IRA if they were age 70 and 1/2 or older by the last day of the year. The SECURE Act eliminated that age limit for contributions after 2019.

The notice clarifies that a financial institution is not required to accept contributions after age 70 and 1/2, but if it does choose to accept them, it must amend its IRA contract and distribute a copy of the amendment and disclosure statement to each individual.

Individuals are not permitted to offset the amount of their required minimum distribution by the amount of their post-age 70 and 1/2 contributions for the same year.

Individuals are able to take their required minimum distributions as qualified charitable distributions. The example below illustrates how this would interact with the new lack of age limit on contributions.

Imagine Bob is over 70 and a 1/2 before 2020. He deducts $5,000 for contributions for 2020 and 2021, but makes no contribution for 2022. He makes no qualified charitable distributions for 2020 and makes qualified charitable distributions of $6,000 for 2021 and $6,500 for 2022. Bob’s excludable amount of qualified charitable distributions for 2021 is the $6,000 of qualified charitable distributions reduced by the $10,000 aggregate amount of post-age 70 1/2 contributions for 2021 and earlier taxable years. For this individual, these amounts are $5,000 for each of 2020 and 2021, resulting in no excludable amount of qualified charitable distributions for 2021 (that is, $6,000 - $10,000 = ($4,000)). The excludable amount of the qualified charitable distributions for 2022 is $2,500 ($6,500 - $4,000 = $2,500). Because the $4,000 amount reduced the excludable amount of qualified charitable distributions for 2022, that $4,000 amount does not apply again in later years, and no amount of post-age 70 1/2 contributions remains to reduce the excludable amount of qualified charitable distributions for subsequent taxable years.

Qualified Birth or Adoption Distributions
Code Sec. 72(t)(1) generally imposes a 10 percent additional tax on an early distribution from a qualified retirement plan (including an IRA or Roth IRA), unless the distribution qualifies for an exception. The SECURE Act provides a new exception to the 10 percent penalty for any qualified birth or adoption distribution up to $5,000 from an applicable retirement plan if made during the 1-year period beginning on the date on which the child is born or the adoption is finalized. The parent must include the name, age and the Taxpayer Identification Number of the child on their tax return the year the distribution is made.

The distribution can be made from any eligible retirement plan described in Code Sec. 402(c)(8)(B), other than a defined benefit plan. Therefore, a Code Sec. 401(a) qualified defined contribution plan, a Code Sec. 403(a) annuity plan, a Code Sec. 403(b) annuity contract, a governmental Code Sec. 457(b) plan, or an IRA is eligible to permit a qualified birth or adoption distribution. Eligible adoptees include any individual who has not attained age 18 or is physically or mentally incapable of self support as defined in Code Sec. 72(m)(7), but does not include an individual who is a child of the taxpayer’s spouse. Each parent can receive a qualified distribution up to $5,000 with respect to the same adoptee, and can receive multiple distributions if they have multiple births (ex. Twins or triplets).

Eligible retirement plans are not required to permit distributions for qualified birth or adoption distributions, but if they do not, individuals can still take the distribution and treat it as a qualified birth or adoption distribution on their federal tax return. Plans must accept recontribution of the distribution, if the following apply:

(a) the plan permits qualified birth or adoption distributions;

(b) the individual received a qualified birth or adoption distribution from that plan; and

(c) the individual is eligible to make a rollover contribution to that plan at the time the individual wishes to recontribute the qualified birth or adoption distribution to the plan.

Qualified birth or adoption distributions are not treated as eligible rollover distributions for purposes of the direct rollover rules, Code Sec. 402(f) notice requirements, and the mandatory withholding rules.

Difficulty of Care Payments
Code Sec. 408(o) provides that designated nondeductible contributions may be made on behalf of an individual to an IRA. A difficulty of care payment is a type of qualified foster care payment that is excludable from gross income.

The notice clarifies that difficulty of care payments received by an employee from a person other than his or her employer are not included as compensation. If an employer does not make difficulty of care payments, then the plan does not need to amend the plan to include the payments in the plan’s definition of compensation. However, if the employer begins to make difficulty of care payments, the plan must be amended.

Participation Rights Expanded for Part-Time Employees
Prior to the SECURE Act, employers that maintained a 401(k) plan were not required to offer it to part-time employees who work less than 1,000 hours per year. The rules require only that employers offer the plan to any employee who has both attained age 21 and has completed at least one year of service. A "year of service" is defined as a 12-month period during which the employee has worked at least 1,000 hours. Someone who works a bare 1,000 hours would be averaging 19.2 hours per week.

Under the SECURE Act, employers with 401(k) plans must offer employees who work between 500 and 1000 hours year an additional track to 401(k) participation. Employees must be able to satisfy participation requirements by completing either:

• the existing one year of service requirement, working at least 1,000-hours, or
• the new three consecutive 12-month periods of service requirement working at least 500 hours in each period.

The three-consecutive-years-of-service track is not available for an employee unless the employee reaches age 21 by the close of the last of the 12-month periods.

For purposes of determining vesting rights to employer contributions for 500-hour track employees, each 12-month period for which the employee has at least 500 hours of service is treated as a year of service. For purposes of the break-in-service rules, a 1-year break in service includes a year in which the employee has not completed at least 500 hours of service.

These amendments apply to plan years beginning after December 31, 2020, except that 12-month periods beginning before January 1, 2021, are not taken into account. The IRS guidance clarifies that this exception does not extend to the special vesting rules.

Plan Amendments
The deadlines to amend a retirement plan for provisions of the SECURE Act, the regulations thereunder, or Act Sec. 104 of the Miners Act are as follows. Note these amendment deadlines apply to both required and discretionary plan amendments.

• Qualified plans. For a qualified plan that is not a governmental plan or an applicable collectively bargained plan, the deadline is the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2022. The plan amendment deadline for a qualified governmental plan or for an applicable collectively bargained plan is the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2024. A plan sponsor may amend its plan after these dates, but they are not entitled to anti-cutback relief.
  
• Section 403(b) plans. The deadline for a Code Sec. 403(b) plan that is not maintained by a public school is the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2022. The deadline is for a plan maintained by a public school is the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2024. A plan sponsor may amend its plan after these dates, but they are not entitled to anti-cutback relief.
  
• Code Sec. 457(b) governmental plans. The deadline is the later of (i) the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2024, or (ii) if applicable, the first day of the first plan year beginning more than 180 days after the date of notification by the Secretary that the plan was administered in a manner that is inconsistent with the requirements of Code Sec. 457(b).
  
• IRAs. The deadline to amend the trust governing an IRA is December 31, 2022, or such later date as the Secretary prescribes in guidance. In the case of a deemed IRA, the deadline is the deadline applicable to the plan under which the deemed IRA is established.

Reduction in Minimum Age for In-Service Distributions
A qualified pension plan cannot make distributions to an employee who is still in-service (that is, working for the employer) prior to a certain age. The Miners Act lowered the minimum age from age 62 to age 59 1/2. Similarly, the Miners Act changed the rule for an eligible government deferred compensation plans under Code Sec. 457(b), reducing the minimum age to the calendar year the participant turns age 70 1/2 to age 59 1/2. These amendments apply to plan years beginning after December 31, 2019.

IRS guidance clarifies that neither a qualified plan nor a Code Sec. 457(b) governmental plan is required to provide for in-service distributions due to changes in the Miners Act. For example, a qualified plan that provides for in-service distributions commencing at age 62 is not required to be amended to provide for in-service distributions commencing at age 59 1/2. Also, the guidance clarifies that a change in the in-service distribution minimum age does not necessarily affect the plan’s existing normal retirement age.

Final regulations provide additional guidance on the base erosion and anti-abuse tax (BEAT) under Code Sec. 59A. The regulations also address certain aspects of the BEAT under Code Secs. 1502 and 6031.

Final regulations provide additional guidance on the base erosion and anti-abuse tax (BEAT) under Code Sec. 59A. The regulations also address certain aspects of the BEAT under Code Secs. 1502 and 6031.

The final regulations retain the basic approach and structure of the 2018 proposed regulations ( NPRM REG-112607-19), with certain revisions. The final regulations generally provide rules addressing the following:

• the determination of a taxpayer’s aggregate group for purposes of determining gross receipts and the base erosion percentage;
• an election to waive deductions for purposes of the BEAT;
• the application of the BEAT to partnerships; and
• the anti-abuse rule provided in Reg. §1.59A-9(b)(4) with respect to certain basis step-up transactions.

Determination of Taxpayer’s Aggregate Group
The final regulations provide guidance regarding how a taxpayer determines its aggregate group. Specifically, rules are provided for the calculation of gross receipts and the base erosion percentage when either the taxpayer or a member of the taxpayer’s aggregate group has a short tax year. The final regulations generally retain the rule in the 2018 proposed regulations that permits the use of a reasonable approach to determine whether a taxpayer’s aggregate group meets the gross receipts test and base erosion percentage test with respect to a short tax year of the taxpayer. The final rules provide examples of methods that may or may not constitute a reasonable approach.

In addition, the final regulations provide guidance on how the gross receipts and the base erosion percentage of an aggregate group are determined when members join or leave a taxpayer’s aggregate group, such as through a sale of the stock of a member to a third party. Clarification is provided regarding the close of the tax year rule for determining gross receipts and base erosion percentage. The final rules also address concerns regarding over-and under-counting of gross receipts of aggregate group members with different tax years.

Finally, guidance is provided on the application of the aggregate group rules to predecessors and successors.

Election to Waive Allowable Deductions
The final regulations address the election to waive allowable deduction and more specifically:

• when a taxpayer is eligible to make the BEAT waiver election;
• the effect of the BEAT waiver election on the base erosion percentage (whether deductions
• waived pursuant to the BEAT waiver election should be included in the denominator of the base erosion percentage);
• a reduction of waived deductions during audit or on an amended return;
• a waiver of life and non-life reinsurance premiums;
• procedures for making the BEAT waiver election;
• the application of the BEAT waiver election to partnerships;
• the application of the BEAT waiver election to consolidated groups; and
• the interaction of the BEAT waiver election with other regulations.

Application of the BEAT to Partnerships
The final regulations expand the ECI exception to apply to certain partnership transactions. The regulations also clarify the treatment of curative allocations and the partnership anti-abuse rule for derivatives.

Anti-abuse Rules of Reg. §1.59A-9 for Basis Step-up Transactions
The anti-abuse rule of Reg. §1.59A-9 is revised to address concerns about the breadth of this rule and its potential to create a "cliff effect," whereby a minimal amount of pre-transaction basis step-up could disqualify an entire transaction that would have otherwise qualified for the specified nonrecognition transaction exception.

Possible Future Guidance Concerning the QDP Reporting Requirements
The IRS is currently studying the interaction of the QDP exception, the BEAT netting rule in Reg. §1.59A-2(e)(3)(iv), and the QDP reporting requirements in Reg. §1.59A-6 and Reg. §1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) and considering whether future guidance may be appropriate.

Applicability Date
The final regulations generally apply to tax years beginning on or after the date they are published in Federal Register. Certain rules apply to tax years ending on or after December 2, 2019. However, taxpayers may apply these final regulations in their entirety for tax years beginning after December 31, 2017, and before their applicability date, provided that, once applied, taxpayers must continue to apply these regulations in their entirety for all subsequent tax years. Alternatively, taxpayers may apply only Reg. §§1.59A-3(c)(5) and (6) for tax years beginning after December 31, 2017, and before their applicability date, provided that, once applied, taxpayers must continue to apply them in their entirety for all subsequent tax years. Taxpayers may also rely on Proposed Reg. §§1.59A-2(c)(2)(ii) and (c)(4) through (c)(6), and 1.59A-3(c)(5) and (c)(6) in their entirety for tax years beginning after December 31, 2017, and before the date of publication of these final regulations in the Federal Register.

As 2013 draws closer, news reports about “taxmageddon” and “taxpocalypse,” describing expiration of the Bush-era tax cuts, are proliferating. Many taxpayers are asking what they can do to prepare. The answer is to prepare early. September may seem too early to be discussing year-end tax planning, but the uncertainty over the Bush-era tax cuts, incentives for businesses, and much more, requires proactive strategizing. Ultimately, the fate of these tax incentives will be resolved; until then, taxpayers need to be flexible in their year-end tax planning.

As 2013 draws closer, news reports about “taxmageddon” and “taxpocalypse,” describing expiration of the Bush-era tax cuts, are proliferating. Many taxpayers are asking what they can do to prepare. The answer is to prepare early. September may seem too early to be discussing year-end tax planning, but the uncertainty over the Bush-era tax cuts, incentives for businesses, and much more, requires proactive strategizing. Ultimately, the fate of these tax incentives will be resolved; until then, taxpayers need to be flexible in their year-end tax planning.

Individuals

In less than three months, the individual income tax rates are scheduled without further action to automatically increase across-the-board, with the highest rate jumping from 35 percent to 39.6 percent. Additionally, the current tax-favorable capital gains and dividends tax rates are scheduled to expire. Higher income taxpayers will also be subject to revived limitations on itemized deductions and their personal exemptions. The child tax credit, one of the most popular incentives in the tax code, will be cut in half. Millions of taxpayers are predicted to be liable for the alternative minimum tax (AMT) because of expiration of the AMT “patch.” Countless other incentives for individuals will either disappear or be substantially reduced after 2012.

In July, the House and Senate passed competing bills to extend many of these expiring incentives one more year (through 2013). No further action is expected on these bills until after the November elections. However, they do signal a highly probable temporary solution to the fate of the Bush-era tax cuts. Regardless of which party wins the White House and Congress, the probability of a one-year extension of the Bush-era tax cuts appears high.

Along with expiration of the Bush-era tax cuts, the two percent payroll tax holiday for 2012 is scheduled to expire. For individuals with income at or above the Social Security wage base for 2012 ($110,100), the payroll tax holiday represented a $2,202 savings. Unlike the Bush-era tax cuts, an extension of the payroll tax holiday is unlikely.

Putting aside the Bush-era tax cuts and the payroll tax holiday for a moment, two new taxes are scheduled to take effect after 2012: an additional 0.9 percent Medicare tax on wages and self-employment income and a 3.8 percent Medicare contribution tax on unearned income. Both new taxes are targeted to individuals with incomes over $200,000 (families with incomes over $250,000). One important misconception about the 3.8 percent Medicare tax is that it is a direct real estate tax. Taxpayers that dispose of real estate may be exempt from the tax either because of income limitations or because of an exclusion provided for primary residence home sales. However, certain high-end homes may feel the sting of the 3.8 percent tax on some or all of the gain realized. Despite some rumblings in the GOP-controlled House, it is unlikely the new Medicare taxes will be repealed before 2013.

All these provisions can be seen as the perfect storm. Year-end tax planning takes on new urgency because of the uncertainty. Some variations on traditional year-end planning techniques may be valuable. Instead of shifting income into a future year, taxpayers may want to recognize income in 2012, when lower tax rates are available, rather than shift income to 2013. The same strategy may apply to recognizing income from capital gains and dividends. Another valuable year-end strategy is to “run the numbers” for regular tax liability and AMT liability. Taxpayers may want to explore if certain deductions should be more evenly divided between 2012 and 2013, and which deductions may qualify, or will not be as valuable, for AMT purposes. Additionally, keep in mind the new Medicare taxes and how they will impact investments and possibly home sales.

Estate tax planning is also in flux. Under current law, the maximum estate tax rate is 35 percent with an applicable exclusion amount of $5 million (indexed for inflation) for decedents dying before January 1, 2013. Unless Congress acts, the estate tax will revert to its less generous pre-2001 rates. Gift and generation-skipping transfer (GST) taxes also will revert to their pre-2001 rates.

Businesses

Businesses are also confronted with uncertainty in tax planning as 2012 ends. Special incentives, such as bonus depreciation, enhanced Code Sec. 179 expensing and a host of business tax extenders, may be unavailable after 2012.

Under current law, 50-percent bonus depreciation applies to qualified property acquired and placed in service after December 31, 2011 and before January 1, 2013 (January 1, 2014 for certain property). For tax years beginning in 2012, the Code Sec, 179 expensing dollar limitation is $139,000 and the investment ceiling is $560,000 for tax years beginning in 2012. After 2012, 50-percent bonus depreciation is scheduled to expire (except for certain property) and the Code Sec. 179 expensing dollar limitation will drop to $25,000 with a $200,000 investment ceiling.

Enhanced Code Sec. 179 expensing is a good candidate for extension after 2012, but at less generous amounts. In July, the Senate approved a Code Sec. 179 dollar amount of $250,000 and an $800,000 investment limitation for tax years beginning after December 31, 2012. The House approved a Code Sec. 179 dollar amount of $100,000 and a $400,000 investment limitation after 2012.

The list of expired business tax extenders is long. The expired incentives include the research tax credit, special expensing for film and television productions, the employer wage credit for military reservists, and many more. A host of related energy incentives have also expired and are awaiting renewal. Unlike past years, Congress is not expected to routinely extend all of the expired provisions. The more widely utilized incentives are likely to be extended; some lesser used incentives may not.

Businesses do have some good news in year-end planning. Temporary “repair” regulations issued in late 2011 include a valuable de minimis rule, which could enable taxpayers to expense otherwise capitalized tangible property. Qualified taxpayers may claim a current deduction for the cost of acquiring items of relatively low-cost property, including materials and supplies, if specific requirements are met. The aggregate cost which may be expensed annually under a taxpayer’s expensing policy is subject to a ceiling equal to the greater of 0.1 percent of gross receipts or two percent of total depreciation and amortization reported on the financial statement.

Businesses should also explore the Code Sec. 199 domestic production activities deduction. This deduction, unlike many other incentives, is permanent and will not expire after 2012. The deduction allows qualified taxpayers to deduct an amount equal to the lesser of a phased-in percentage of taxable income (adjusted gross income for individuals) or qualified production activities income. A taxpayer’s Code Sec. 199 deduction cannot exceed one-half (50 percent) of the W-2 wages paid by the taxpayer during the year.

Sequestration

The fate of the Bush-era tax cuts and the other incentives is linked to sequestration. The Budget Control Act of 2011 imposes across-the-board spending cuts starting in 2013. Many lawmakers want to postpone or repeal the spending cuts but savings must be recouped somehow. Several energy tax incentives, especially for oil and gas producers, have been viewed as likely candidates for elimination to offset repeal of the Budget Control Act.

Please contact our office if you have any questions about the incentives we discussed and how you can develop a year-end tax plan that responds to the current climate of uncertainty.

Form 8942 will also contain a Penalties of Perjury Statement. Each applicant must sign and date this statement. The person signing for the applicant must have personal knowledge of the facts. Further, the declaration must be signed by a person authorized to bind the applicant. The Penalties of Perjury statement is effective for ALL information submitted as a complete application. The Project Information Memorandum: •The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) will review information provided by the applicant in the Project Information Memorandum in order to determine whether a project meets the definition of “qualifying therapeutic discovery project” and whether the applicant has demonstrated that its project shows a “reasonable potential” to meet one or more of the goals specified in the statute. •The Project Information Memorandum must follow the format specified herein. It must contain the questions specified and the answers as to which the applicant must check yes or no. The form also requires, as stated, that the applicant provide written narratives with respect to certain questions, including narratives supporting and explaining the basis for each yes answer. The statements included in Project Information Memorandum shall not exceed the stated word limits. If statements exceed the stated word limits, words beyond those limits will not be considered. Statements that otherwise fails to comply with the instructions set out in the application will not be considered. All text shall be typed, single spaced, suing 12 point font, 1 inch margins and unreduced 8 ½ inch by 11 inch pages (A Project Information Memorandum that is submitted using the form provided on the IRS website will be deemed in compliance with spacing, font, margins and page size requirements with regard to the information submitted on such form). All applications shall be legible. Pages shall be sequentially numbered and identified with the name of the applicant and the date. No material may be incorporated in any application by reference. •Note: Any language beyond any word limits in the application will be disregarded for purposes of review. •If elements of the Project Information Memorandum contain information the applicant considers to be trade secrets, confidential, privileged or otherwise exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, the applicant shall assert a claim of exemption at the time of application by placing the following text on the first page of the Project Information Memorandum, and specify the page or pages of the application to be restricted. “The data contained in pages [ ] of this document which hereby forms a part of the application have been submitted in confidence and contain trade secrets or proprietary information, and such data shall be used or disclosed only for review purposes. This restriction does not limit the government’s right to use or disclose data obtained without restriction from any source, including the applicant.” •To further protect trade secret, confidential, privileged or otherwise exempt information, each line or paragraph on the page or pages containing such data must be specifically identified and marked with text that is similar to the following: “The following contains proprietary information that [name of applicant] requests not to be released to persons outside of the Government, except for purposes of review.” •Note: Any text used to protect confidentiality will not be counted against the total word limits of the Project Information Memorandum. •The Project Information Memorandum must include: A.Provide an overview of the project for which you are seeking a credit or grant, including a description of the product, process or technology under development. The description may not exceed 250 words. If the project involves a new therapy, the description must include an explanation of why that therapy is novel. B.Answer each “Yes or No Question” (the actual form will have check-boxes) in the following and provide a short (not more than 50 words) statement supporting each positive assertion. Check all that apply, but you need check only one Yes for answers 1 through 4 for initial qualification.

Qualifying Therapeutic Discovery Project definition 1. Is the project: a.designed to develop a product to treat or prevent a disease or condition; b.by conducting pre-clinical activities, clinical trials, or clinical studies, or by carrying out research protocols; and c.for the purpose of securing approval of a product under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act? 2. Is the project designed to diagnose a disease or condition? 3. Is the project designed to determine molecular factors related to diseases or conditions by developing molecular diagnostics to guide therapeutic decisions? 4. Is the project designed to develop a product, process, or technology to further the delivery or administration of therapeutics? Selection criteria 5. Is the project likely to result in one or more new therapies? 6. If the answer to question 5 is Yes, are the new therapy(ies) expected to: a. treat areas of unmet medical need? b. prevent, detect, or treat chronic or acute diseases or conditions? 7. Is the project likely to reduce long-term health care costs in the United States? 8. Is the project likely to significantly advance the goal of curing cancer within the next 30 years? For each of questions 9, 10, and 11, provide a short statement, not to exceed a total of 250 words, including responses to bulleted items. For question 9, applicants may also submit up to five literature citations in the specified format that will not be counted against the 250-word limit. 9. Explain the scientific rationale, based on prior conceptual and empirical work, which supports the belief that the proposed project will lead to the outcome the applicant has identified above. Explain the research and development plan that will lead to the outcome identified above. Describe the scientific evidence relied on by the applicant, including a description of any peer review of the project and a list of no more than five literature citations using the following format: ?Include the names of all authors (in the same sequence in which they appear in the publication), the article and journal title, book title, volume number, page numbers, and year of publication.

?When citing articles that were authored or co-authored by the applicant and arose from NIH support, if available, provide the NIH Manuscript Submission reference number (e.g., NIHMS97531) or the Pubmed Central (PMC) reference number (e.g., PMCID234567) for each citation.

?Citations for which an NIH Manuscript Submission reference number is not available but are publicly available in a free, online format should include URLs or PMCID numbers along with the full reference. The references should be limited to relevant and current literature.

10. Describe the stage of development of the project, including a description of preclinical and clinical trial results that are relevant to the proposal. Include in your description:

?If the project involves the development of a product that is regulated by the Food and Drug Administration, an explanation of whether an investigational new drug application or an investigational device exemption has been filed with the Food and Drug Administration, and whether an application for approval, license, or clearance has been filed, and, if so, the status of that application as of the date of application as of the date this project information memorandum is submitted.

?If the project does not involve the development of a product that is regulated by the Food and Drug Administration, information about any regulatory reviews or approvals that have occurred.

?If the project involves preclinical testing, a description of the testing completed and/or contemplated.

?If the project involves testing in humans, information about the phase(s) of the testing that has been completed and the number of subjects tested in each phase and information about trials for which the applicant is actively recruiting subjects. Summarize the results of the trails, noting any failed trials or successful trials.

?The planned research and development strategy for the test or treatment being researched and a summary schedule for development of the project, including timelines and milestones planned and completed.

11. Describe the resources, management experience and organizational capacity of the applicant and explain how applicant believes that such resources, experience and capacity will support successful completion of the project. Include in this description: ?A statement of the revenue levels and sources for this project over the past three years.

?A statement of the revenue levels and sources for the proposed research and development plan delineated in response to question 10.

?A description of any significant public or private investment, such as by venture capitalists, in the development or commercialization of the project.

?A description of any strategic partnerships for the development or commercialization of the project.

?A statement of whether the applicant has suspended operations for the project and, if so, whether the suspension is temporary or permanent. If the project has been suspended, terminate, or is otherwise inactive, explain why, including whether the cause is a lack of financial resources or other reasons.

Evaluation Criteria and Factors for the Project Information Memorandum HHS will make the determination described above based on the information provided in the Project Information Memorandum and on the following eligibility and evaluation criteria and factor Definitions A project that does not meet the definition of "qualifying therapeutic discovery project" will be found to be ineligible. A project that does not support an affirmative response to any of questions 1 – 4 does not meet the statutory definition of a qualifying therapeutic discovery project. The applicant must effectively support each yes answer through the accompanying narrative. Question 1 focuses on the requirement of § 48D(c)(1)(A) of the Code. To satisfy this provision, the project must be designed to treat or prevent diseases or conditions. It must be designed to do so by conducting pre-clinical activities, clinical trials, or clinical studies or carrying out a clinical protocol. It must also be for the purpose of obtaining approval of a product under one of two statutory provisions—Section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) (a new drug application) or Section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act (PHSA) (a biologic license application) . For example, a medical countermeasure against a known threat or emerging infectious disease that is developed for the purpose of securing approval under one of these provisions would satisfy this provision. Note that generic drugs, which are approved under Section 505(j) of the FFDCA, and biosimilar products, which are approved under Section 351(k) of the PHSA, would be excluded. Dietary supplements and most cosmetics would also be excluded because they are generally not the subject of a new drug or biologic license application. Questions 2 and 3 focus on the requirements of § 48D(c)(1)(B) of the Code. This provision covers two separate categories of products. The first, covered by question 2, is a product to diagnose a disease or condition. Any product that diagnoses a disease or condition would meet this criterion, whether or not it determines molecular factors or is a molecular diagnostic. Relevant products would include point of care diagnostics for infectious agents. Question 3 covers a product that determines molecular factors related to diseases or conditions by developing molecular diagnostics to guide therapeutic decisions. This might include, for example, a test that would determine which patients with a particular disease or condition would be likely to respond best to a particular drug or device. Question 4 focuses on the requirement of § 48D(c)(1)(C) of the Code. To qualify under question 4, a product, process, or technology must further the delivery or administration of therapeutics. For the purposes of § 48D(c)(1)(C), the term “therapeutics” means drugs or medical devices, as those terms are defined in Section 201(g) and (h) of the FFDCA, 21 U.S.C. 321(g) and (h). Biologics that are licensed under the PHSA will generally be either drugs or medical devices. Thus, a drug-eluting stent or infusion pump would be an example of a product that furthers the delivery or administration of a drug and would meet the requirements of this provision. However, a medical device, or other product, process or technology that does not further the delivery or administration of a drug or medical device would not meet the requirements of this provision because such products do not deliver or administer a therapeutic within the meaning of § 48D(c)(1)(C). The term “therapeutic” is narrower than the term “therapy,” which appears elsewhere in section 48D. Therefore, products, processes or technologies that deliver other therapies which are not therapeutics, such as speech, physical, and cognitive therapies, would for the same reasons be excluded. Reasonable potential selection criteria If HHS determines that a project meets the definition of "qualifying therapeutic discovery project," HHS will proceed to determine whether the applicant has demonstrated, through responses to questions 5-11, that its project shows a reasonable potential to meet a statutory goal. This determination will be based on an evaluation of whether the project is designed to achieve one or more of the goals specified in section 48D and, if so, whether the applicant has shown a reasonable potential to achieve the goal(s). Specifically, the applicant must show that its project is designed to achieve one of the statutory goals by checking yes for one or more of the following: a. question 5 and question 6.a; b. question 5 and question 6.b; c. question 7; or d. question 8. In addition, the applicant must effectively support each yes answer through the accompanying narrative. Question 5 addresses the requirement of § 48D(d)(3)(A)(i) of the Code that, to satisfy the statutory goal of that provision, the project must be a “new therapy.” Thus, the therapy must be novel and cannot be the same as, or difficult to meaningfully distinguish from, a therapy currently on the market. For example, this means the therapy should not be in the same class as existing therapies, unless such therapy is expected to offer a significant enhancement in safety or effectiveness. HHS will evaluate the information provided as to the novelty of the product based on the explanation provided with any Yes response to this question and the initial narrative description of the project. Question 6 addresses the requirement of § 48D(d)(3)(A)(i) of the Code that a new therapy either treats areas of unmet medical need, or prevents, detects, or treats chronic or acute diseases or conditions. For example, unmet medical needs would include novel influenza vaccine technologies, broad spectrum anti-viral medications, novel antibiotics, and platform vaccine technologies. In addition to new therapies that treat diseases and conditions, such products that detect or prevent diseases and conditions are also covered by this provision. Question 7 addresses the requirement of § 48D(d)(3)(A)(ii) of the Code, which covers projects that will reduce long-term health care costs in the United States. The narrative accompanying any Yes response should explain how the project is likely to reduce health care costs, including a description of how the project will lead to actual cost reductions, not just substituting one cost for another and the basis of this determination. The narrative should provide a reasonable estimate of savings and demonstrate a reasonable potential to achieve these savings. Question 8 addresses the requirement of § 48D(d)(3)(A)(iii) of the Code, which covers projects that will significantly advance the goal of curing cancer within the next 30 years. If HHS determines that the applicant satisfies the requirements to which questions 5 through 8 are addressed, regarding the specific statutory selection criteria, HHS will proceed to review the responses to questions 9-11 and evaluate whether the information provided supports a determination that there is a reasonable potential that the project will achieve one or more of the statutory goals. HHS will make this determination based on an analysis of the scientific rationale for the project (question 9), the current stage of development of the project (question 10), and the evidence that the applicant has the capacity to bring the project to fruition (question 11). HHS will notify the Service of the results of the HHS evaluation as to whether the project is a qualifying therapeutic discovery project and shows a reasonable potential to achieve one or more of the statutory goals. Certification Only those qualifying therapeutic development projects that have both (a) a reasonable potential to achieve one or more of the statutory goals set forth in section 48D(d)(3)(A) as determined by HHS and (b) the greatest potential to (i) create and sustain (directly or indirectly) high quality, high-paying jobs in the United States, and (ii) advance United States competitiveness in the fields of life, biological, and medical sciences as determined by the Service will receive a certification for all or a portion of their qualified investment. The Service will certify an amount of qualified investment made by an eligible taxpayer for qualifying therapeutic development projects in accordance with the provisions put forth in this document, obtained from Internal Revenue Code § 48D.